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Does this count as one day for a eurail pass?
Tue, 07/13/2004 - 06:36
Member
I am aware that for trips departing after 7 PM and arrival after midnight is considered as one day. My question is the following:
Suppose that there are no direct trains from cities X to Z and you have to stop at city Y.
From X to Y, the departure is after 7PM but the arrival is before midnight. Then from Y to Z, the departure is before midnight and the arrival is the next day.
Does this count as two days or just one? Can the trip X —> Y be combined to Y —> Z as one day?
Sorry if this sounds like a weird math question.
2 days. Most simply stated: The "7 PM rule" only applies to direct trains with no connections.
Heres a direct quote from raileurope.com:
"When riding an overnight train, a travel day begins at 7pm on day one and ends at midnight on day two (it’s like a 29-hour day!)"
link: http://www.raileurop…
From that quote from above, I would think that it would be considered one travel day. One travel begins at 7pm and ends the next day midnight. Considering your situation, since you left after 7pm, it would be burn one travel day. As the rules states, when you use one of the travel days, you can ride the train an unlimited number of times until midnight.
I have no experience riding these trains, thats what I’m picking up from the rules. So proceed with caution.
Fatcat, I think you’ll find on further investigation that the 7:00 PM rule only applies if you don’t make any connections. This is pasted from the FAQ’s at "buy a railpass." The "direct" is in bold type:
A rail day is considered any travel between 12 midnight to 12 midnight of the following day (i.e. a 24 hour period). However, a good tip to know is the 7:00pm rule. If you board a direct, overnight train after 7pm, only the following day of travel is counted. On your flexipass, you would write the day of arrival on the pass prior to boarding the overnight train. Some individual country passes do not offer this rule.
And excellent question. I’ve never thought of that!
beach-lunch-siesta-beach-shower-dinner-nightlife-repeat
Thanks for the clarification oldlady. I will traveling to Europe in Sept. and love the advice that you give. Thanks again.
I’m not disputing the "letter of the law" but I have travelled between Italy and Spain (Florence-Barcelona and the reverse), changing trains en route, and I only used one travel day.
Augustin: If your connection was after midnight, then you were following "the letter of the law" by only using one day. In the original example the connection was before midnight. Your point is a good one, though. You might be able to get by with one day and it’s so confusing you can plead ignorance if you get caught.